ACE Airfield Operations Module 3 Practice Test

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• Safety Plan Compliance Document (SPCD) is what?
• If an airfield is exposed to maintenance technicians who taxi aircraft, what must first be provided to the Operator?
• Which scenario defines a Pilot Deviation (PD)?
• UN numbers are used to identify what in international transport?
• Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) describe what about navigation?
• Which action should be taken during a runway excursion?
• Which of the following is NOT a common contributing factor to runway incursions?
• The minimum distance threshold for PRM runway separation is less than how many feet?
• In a standard GA traffic pattern, which leg comes immediately before the final approach?
• Which scenario would be classified as an Operational Incident rather than a runway incursion?
• How should a ground vehicle operator respond to an ATC clearance conflict with another vehicle?
• NOTAM impact analysis is used to determine how NOTAMs affect which of the following?
• What are the identifying features of a taxiway holding position sign and marking?
• Which statement best describes Field Condition (FICON) NOTAM?
• Class C airspace extends from the surface to what height above the airport elevation?
• Which scenario defines an Operational Incident (OI)?
• Which description best matches Category D runway incursion?
• What is the purpose of habitat modification in wildlife management at airports?
• What color lettering are Avgas (100LL) lines (in fuel farms or refuelers)?
• What is the range for Terminal VORs?
• Which statement best defines a runway incursion?
• Which statement best describes Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM)?
• In a standard pattern, what direction are the turns?
• CSPP includes detours for ARFF or other airport vehicles.
• Non-precision slopes include which ratio?
• Which ILS category typically includes an inner marker and specific RVR criteria?
• What is the Critical Area?
• Which factor is primarily identified through wildlife hazard assessments around runways?
• What are common wildlife hazard mitigation strategies at airports?
• Runway friction testing is performed under controlled conditions using devices such as a mu-meter. Which option best describes this statement?
• How would you conduct a safe wake turbulence separation assessment on a busy airfield?
• What is the primary purpose of a taxiway hold point marking and its associated sign?
• Name two methods used to deter unauthorized access to critical airfield areas.
• What is the Crosswind Leg in relation to a landing runway?
• How often are Airport Operations personnel expected to inspect fueling facilities?
• Which category describes a near-collision event where a collision was narrowly avoided?
• ADS-B surveillance involves aircraft automatically providing, via datalink, data derived from on-board navigation and position fixing systems.
• What does ILS stand for?
• RSA stands for Runway Safety Area.
• GPS provides which information to pilots?
• An Instrument Approach is best described as?
• What is the purpose of an Airport Condition Reporting System (ACRS) or equivalent weather/field condition reporting?
• What does the Instrument Landing System (ILS) provide?
• What is the importance of a clean, well-marked airfield surface for operations?
• What is the role of ARFF at an airport, and what are its primary categories?
• VPD stands for which deviation?
• Visual Approach definition.
• Explain the difference between pilots’ and ground personnel’s responsibilities during vehicle crossing of active runways.
• Which leg is at right angles to the landing runway?
• What is the FAA's authority regarding proposed construction?
• Base leg is defined as which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of Notice to Air Missions (NOTAMs)?
• Class E airspace is defined as which of the following?
• Which steps should be taken to manage a fuel spill containment on the apron?
• In airfield terminology, what does the term ‘protected area’ refer to?
• Class B airspace extends from the surface to what altitude?
• Construction Safety Phasing Plan (CSPP) is what?
• What actions should a ground handler take after a suspected fuel spill on the apron?
• ADS-B stands for
• Which action is NOT typically performed during a snow event on the airfield?
• Explain the difference between de-icing and anti-icing.
• In the event of a suspected fuel spill, which entities should be notified promptly?
• What is the primary purpose of hazard marking, lighting, and signing in airport operations?
• How do environmental conditions influence airfield operations and decision-making?
• ADS-B transmissions are derived from which data sources?
• Where does the Approach Surface begin in relation to the runway end and the primary surface?
• How far from buildings must refueling vehicles be at all times?
• What color lettering are jet fuel lines (in fuel farms or refuelers)?
• Which device is used to measure runway friction in testing?
• How would you classify a braking action report that indicates poor braking on a wet runway?
• If an air traffic control tower is closed or not operational, are personnel required to obtain permission from ATC to access movement areas?
• Refueling safety requires maintaining a minimum distance of how many feet from buildings?
• Precision slope is what ratio?
• Why is documenting braking action data and surface conditions during equipment inspections important?
• Describe how to perform a basic aircraft marshaling signal for a taxiing aircraft.
• TOFA is designed to keep clear which areas in proximity to aircraft wings and props?
• For CAT III operations below 1200 ft RVR, what must the airport establish for taxiing aircraft safely from parking to the runway?
• SPCD is the safety plan submitted by which party outlining how they will comply with the CSPP?
• Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) require navigation by which means?
• Which organization provides the standard for aviation fuel storage and delivery at airports?
• What does NOTAM stand for?
• Which Class of airspace is typically served by TRACON and a local ATCT within certain criteria?
• TERPS guidelines are intended to be requested by which entity?
• Airspace regulated by the FAA is described as which term?
• Who issues taxi clearances from ground to a taxiing aircraft?
• The base leg connects the downwind leg to which point?
• Which statement about construction in TOFA is correct?
• What is the primary difference between a visual and contact approach?
• How far from the runway threshold is the Middle Marker (MM)?
• What is the role of a NOTAM operator in ensuring ground safety and operations?
• Which statement describes the departure leg?
• What information should be included in an airfield equipment inspection checklist?
• What is the purpose of Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between friction measurement MU and braking action reports?
• What is the recommended action if a pilot reports cockpit warning lights indicating a system fault upon landing?
• Final approach path is taken along the extended runway centerline from which leg to the runway?
• What does flame spread rate describe?
• What is a prohibition associated with TOFA?
• Which area presents a greater constraint on construction activities?
• What is the purpose of runway friction testing?
• IMC stands for Instrument Meteorological Conditions.
• What is the purpose of a field condition report and who typically authorizes it?
• What is the primary purpose of NOTAMs in airfield operations?
• TOFA stands for which term?
• Category II (CAT II) ILS is described as:
• Describe the basic elements of a standard traffic pattern at a general aviation airport.
• How would you address a pilot’s report of a foreign object debris (FOD) on a taxiway?
• Which action is part of preparing for a runway friction test?
• NOTAMs are used to notify pilots about changes affecting flight operations. Which of the following would typically be included in a NOTAM?
• The Outer Marker is typically located at what distance from the runway threshold?
• What is the primary reason TOFA is more stringent than ROFA?
• Which federal law requires the development of emergency response plans addressing fuel spills and exposure to hazardous waste?
• Which item is addressed by the CSPP?
• Which flight path is along the extended runway centerline from the base leg to the runway?
• Wind information is conveyed to pilots and vehicle operators in what reference?
• Terminal Procedures (TERPS) are guidelines for developing what?
• Which statement is true about Category III (CAT III) ILS compared to CAT II?
• Outline the typical steps for a safe pushback operation from a gate.
• What is the purpose of an Airfield Driving/Vehicle Operating Policy?
• Which lighting system provides a visual slope indicator for approach angle?
• Which plan focuses on eliminating, preventing or reducing pollutants in storm water runoff associated with airport activities?
• Why is it important to conduct regular wildlife hazard assessments around the runway environment?
• Which of the following is NOT typically a factor in planning de-ice operations on a busy ramp?
• VORs for low-altitude navigation typically have which range?
• How far past the departure end of a runway is the Localizer usually located?
• Which NOTAM item directly affects ground operations?
• In an airfield safety briefing, why is radio etiquette included?
• In hazard marking, lighting and signing, what is the primary objective?
• Class D airspace surrounds airports with what type of control facility?
• What does a VOR provide?
• Which three components make up the fire triangle?
• What is NOTAM impact analysis?
• What is the primary purpose of a surface movement radar (SMR) on the airfield?
• During the standard climb after departure, how far beyond the departure end of the runway must the climb extend?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between TOFA and ROFA?
• What is a Contact Approach?
• What is the primary focus of the Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP)?
• What is a typical standard format for taxi instructions to prevent miscommunication?
• Structural-based BMPs use physical measures to achieve which outcomes?
• FICON NOTAMs report surface conditions and braking actions for which surfaces?
• What are the key elements of an effective airside safety briefing for new personnel?
• Which actions are critical during a runway excursion?
• Which sequence describes the order of marker beacons from outermost to innermost on an ILS?
• BMPs are described as what?
• Which description best matches Category B runway incursion?
• What best defines a runway incursion?
• What is the standard process for issuing a taxi clearance from ground to a taxiing aircraft?
• What best describes standard operating procedures (SOPs) for airfield ground handling?
• Four-digit numbers used to identify dangerous goods and hazardous substances in international transport are called what?
• In airfield ground operations, what is the main difference between signs and markings?
• Which NOTAM type reports surface conditions and braking actions for runways or taxiways?
• What does the term airfield markings encompass and why are they standardized?
• WAAS stands for
• Which statement about the Conical Surface is true?
• Define friction measurement MU and its significance for takeoff performance.
• In taxi operations, what does a holding point indicate?
• Why is it important to limit those who do drive on the airfield to only perimeter and access roads unless otherwise required by job function?
• Which of the following is a step in a basic airfield incident investigation?
• Which fuel has a higher flash point, Jet-A or Avgas?
• What is the downwind leg in a standard traffic pattern?
• In hazard marking, lighting and signing, which group must be prevented from entering areas open to aircraft?
• Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is a system for airports with parallel runways separated by less than 4,300 feet to allow controllers to monitor two approaching aircraft simultaneously.
• What is the weight threshold for Small Unmanned Aircraft (UAS)?
• Category I (CAT I) ILS is best described as:
• Under what circumstances can fuel trucks be placed in hangars?
• In an airfield safety management system, what is the purpose of safety assurance?
• Which statement best describes the difference between a runway hold-short and a taxiway hold position?
• What is the primary reason for restricting movement-area access to only perimeter and access roads?
• What is the significance of runway status lights (RWSL) and when are they used?
• Which description best matches Category A runway incursion?
• NOTAM impact analysis is used to determine how NOTAMs affect which of the following?
• Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) allows airports the opportunity for ILS-like approach capabilities without ground-based navigation equipment at the airport.
• Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) provides what information to pilots?
• Which category describes an incident requiring a time-critical corrective and evasive response to avoid a collision?
• Noncomplying Conditions: If requirements cannot be met, what must the certificate holder do?
• Which statement about NOTAM impact analysis is correct?
• Which altitude extends from the surface to 10,000 ft MSL around the busiest airports?
• Which factor is most critical for determining how long de-ice fluid remains effective after application?
• Which statement best describes a major drawback of primary radar systems?
• Where does the Transitional Surface commence, and what is its slope?
• During a snow event, which action is a primary responsibility of the airfield operations supervisor?
• How often must airports inspect each airport tenant's physical fueling facilities?
• Where is the Primary Surface located and how far does it extend?
• Which statement about RCAM is correct?
• How far from the runway threshold is the Inner Marker (IM)?
• Which ILS component provides vertical guidance?
• SWPPP stands for?
• What is the purpose of a runway holding position sign and marking?
• Where is the Glideslope positioned on a runway?
• Which flight path is described as traveling at right angles to the landing runway from its departure end?
• DME distance is determined by measuring what?
• When a temporary runway closure is necessary, which actions should be taken to inform stakeholders?
• Which statement best describes BMPs for storm water runoff at airports?
• Class A airspace extends from which altitude to which?
• Prohibited Area is best described as which?
• Why are structural BMPs often a problem for airport operators?
• Which statement about TOFA and construction is true?
• TOFA stands for Taxiway Object Free Area. Why is TOFA considered more stringent than ROFA?
• Who typically authorizes or prepares a field condition report?
• How far from the runway threshold is the Outer Marker (OM)?
• What is the primary purpose of an Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) during an incident?
• In the event of an aircraft accident involving the use of any navigational aid, what must happen to the system?
• If environmental conditions require adjustments, what should operations crews do?
• An Instrument Approach Procedure is defined as?
• Identify three key responsibilities during an engine/power unit fire on the ramp.
• Which statement best describes the relationship between holdover time and de-icing fluid type in ramp operations?
• What is the MARSHALLING signal used for during aircraft docking?
• What is the function of a precision approach path indicator (PAPI) and how should pilots interpret its colors?
• What is the purpose of a bird strike reporting program and what data is typically collected?
• Which statement about Visual Approach is true?
• Airspace not regulated by the FAA is described as which?
• Under which circumstances should a temporary runway closure be implemented and which notifications are required?
• What role do perimeter controls play in airfield security?
• What term describes the temperature at which vapors from a material form an ignitable mixture?
• What is the Upwind Leg in relation to a landing runway?
• Which statement regarding NOTAM impact analysis is correct?
• Which combination of weather information sources is commonly used in airfield operations?
• Runway environment checks verify which elements before operations?
• Which statement about Visual Approach is true?
• List three types of airfield lighting you would expect to find on an instrument runway and their primary purpose.
• Which statement correctly differentiates NOTAM D and FDC NOTAM?
• How can you minimize risk of runway incursions during night operations?
• What does Localizer provide?
• RADAR uses what to determine the velocity and location of objects?
• Which Class is described as 'All other controlled airspace'?
• What are the main components of an airfield safety management system (SMS)?
• What is the significance of a runway environment check and who should conduct it?
• Which description best matches Category C runway incursion?
• Under CERCLA, who must immediately notify the National Response Center (NRC) when hazmat released?
• Category III (CAT III) ILS is best described as:
• What is the minimum number of satellites required to provide an accurate GPS position?
• Which statement best describes the downwind leg?
• The Conical Surface extends horizontally for how many feet?
• Which scenario defines a Vehicle/Pedestrian Deviation (VPD)?
• How is the Horizontal Surface defined?
• The US Digital NOTAM Manager is the primary and preferred method of issuing a NOTAM.
• Describe the role of the airport operations supervisor during a runway closure.
• Which regulating authority provides a standard for the storage and delivery of aviation fuel in an airport environment?
• When communicating taxi instructions, why is phrasal clarity important and what is a typical standard format?
• Which procedure serves as a backup to ATC communications in the event of malfunction or loss of contact?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the fire triangle?
• Restricted Area is best described as which?
• Which statement about standard operating procedures (SOPs) is true?
• Who is responsible for the operation of all vehicles on the airfield?
• Which statement describes the relationship of the flash points of Jet-A and Avgas?
• The two primary purposes of structural-based BMPs are to...
• What is the purpose of 14 CFR Part 77?
• What does SMGCS stand for?
• What does Glideslope provide?
• According to Part 139, access to movement areas should be limited to whom?
• When safety requirements cannot be met, what action must the certificate holder take regarding air carrier operations?
• What is the primary use of basic marshaling signals by ground crew?
• CAT II landings bottom-out at what RVR?
• Class D airspace extends from the surface to how many feet above the airport elevation?
• In hazard marking policy, which personnel must be prevented from entering areas open to aircraft?